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If slavery enables the transfer of wealth from the slaves to the masters, then it must be
that the slaves directly created the wealth by their labor, and then the wealth is transferred
from the productive slaves to their unproductive masters. What is alienated from slaves
was first produced by slaves. Such an arrangement is a redistribution of wealth scheme,
with the wealth being taken from the producers and given to the proprietors. Those who
will criticize and condemn socialism as a wealth redistribution scheme do not seem to
see that really-existing capitalism had its genesis in a system of chattel-slavery, which is
the precursor of wage-slavery. The forerunner of wage-labor was slave-labor. The
genealogy of today's wage-servitude is yesterday's system of slavery.
It is human labor that creates wealth; and when human labor is enslaved and exploited,
then this arrangement, this condition of labor serves to create wealth for the masters to
possess. When there is no more slave labor, and no more wage labor, then human
labor will still create wealth, but the wealth will be shared with all, as there is need; just
as the labor will be shared in by all, as there is ability.
Sharecropping is a capitalist form of slavery.
The owners of sweatshops offer work to the propertyless poor, because the shop-owners
are the exclusive and private proprietors of the means of livelihood which the propertyless
poor need access to, in order to work and earn a livelihood, within the context of capitalism.
"The word 'God' is not mentioned in the United States Constitution."
-- Anonymous
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Posted by rallen2 on 2008-03-05 11:59:15 | Rating: n/a | Views: 31
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